Furthermore, see John 6:52-68. Jesus isnít talking figuratively. The Jews would not have been outraged if he was speaking figuratively. If he meant it figuratively, he could have clarified his point so they would not be outraged. Plus, since many disciples stopped following Jesus because of it, (v 60), He would have clarified that he meant it in symbolic terms if he had. And apparently, there was never any denying the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist for over a thousand years.
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